computational linguist more like bomputational bimgis

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Joined il y a 8 mois
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Cake day: 2 avril 2024

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  • sparkle@lemm.eetoScience Memes@mander.xyzCorn 🌽
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    il y a 4 mois

    Which person decided to domesticate that thing. Just like “hey I found this weird looking grass fruit wanna enslave it” and chief’s like “hell yeah of course I wanna enslave it!” and then they just ate increasingly beady grass for a few thousand years







  • For a lot of English speakers, the “had” and “have” in contractions is completely omitted in certain contexts. It’s more prevalent in some dialects (I’m in the south US and it’s more common than not). Usually “had” is dropped more than “have”.

    Also, English can drop the pronoun, article, and even copula for certain indicative statements. I think it’s specifically for observations, especially when the context is clear.

    looking at someone’s bracelet “Cool bracelet.” [That’s a]

    wakes upsigh Gotta get up and go to work…” [I’ve]

    “Ain’t no day for picking tomatoes like a Saturday.” [There]

    “No war but class war!” [There’s]

    “Forecast came in on the radio. Says there’s gonna be a hell of a lot of rain today.” [It said -> Says/Said]

    “Can’t count the number of Brits I’ve killed. Guess I’m just allergic to beans on toast.” [I; I]

    “House came tumblin’ down after the sinkhole opened up” [The]

    “I’d” can be “I would”, mainly if used with a conditional or certain conjunctions/contrastive statements (if, but, however, unfortunately). Also when preceding “have” – e.g. “I’d have done that”. Because “I had have” doesn’t make sense, nor does “I had <present tense>” anything. “I’d” as in “I had” is followed by a past participle.

    “I’d” is usually “I had” otherwise, forming the past perfect tense. But in “I’d better”, it’s a bit confusing because “had better” is used in a different sense – the “had” here comes from “have to” (as in “to be necessary to”) and can be treated as both a lexical verb and an auxiliary verb. “had better” is a bit of a leftover of more archaic constructions.


  • sparkle@lemm.eetoScience Memes@mander.xyzbig bro jupiter
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    il y a 4 mois

    Well, its small mass certainly contributed to it losing heat more efficiently. But Mercury (much less massive than Mars) and Ganymede (around the same mass as Mars) both have a magnetic field, so there are a lot of other factors at play. Something to do with a change in the chemical composition of Mars’ mantle, and the possible lack of plate tectonics, I’m not so familiar with the causes though.


  • sparkle@lemm.eetoScience Memes@mander.xyzbig bro jupiter
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    il y a 4 mois

    Venus was habitable (with vast oceans, plate tectonics, soil and everything) for 3 billion years (almost 70% of its history!), until about 700 million years ago… it stopped being habitable because of Jupiter.

    From Wikipedia:

    Between 700 and 750 million years ago, a near-global resurfacing event triggered the release of carbon dioxide from rock on the planet, which transformed its climate. In addition, according to a study from researchers at the University of California, Riverside, Venus would be able to support life if Jupiter had not altered its orbit around the Sun.

    Considering there’s a good chance Jupiter obliterated our next door neighbours, an entire planet of organisms… yea it’s not as nice as it seems

    Oh well. Mars was also habitable for a few hundred million years – in fact, the river beds and remnants of the Martian oceans are still very clearly visible on 2/3 of the surface, even after 4 billion years, and NASA is on a mission to bring fossils of ancient Martian life back to Earth, if there are any. But all of its atmosphere leaked out into space because its dynamo (magnetic field generation) abruptly disappeared so… skill issue lol. One of the many possible contributing factors to that happening is that giant impacts during that period of time overheated its mantle which fucked up global heat flow & convection near the core so… Jupiter’s fault again?